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Re: Goran on phonology

> Goran & And:
> > > There is nothing in lojban phonology that would imply that aspiration
> > > has distinctive function.
> > True, but I'm not sure that that's what was originally intended. I suspect
> > James Brown, or whoever it was, believed that English p/t/k b/d/g differ
> > in voicing. Was this design feature really introduced in the knowledge
> > that it is foreign and very difficult to english ears? I doubt it.
> Spanish distinguishes them by fricating (or whatever) b/d/g rather than by
> aspirating p/t/k. If voicedness is not enough I don't see why the English
> method should be the preferred one. :)

I'm not proposing it be made easier for anglophones. I just raised this
as an unforeseen difficulty and one that remains relatively unnoticed
due in part to a failure to consider matters phonological from a hearer's
perspective. But it's worth bearing in mind that most anglophone lojbanists
are probably often saying /p t k/ when they think theyre saying /b d g/
- maybe this is a case where Lojbab's "say whatever you like, as long
as you make all phonemes distinct" rule has to be relied on.