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Re: ni, jei, perfectionism



>>I claim that the refgrammar does not define the second.  I will agree that
>>Chap 11, 6.3) appears to contain an unmarked sumti-raising which would
>require
>>a tu'a on the x2 to be ideal.
>
>As well as 11,7.3) and 11,7.6). Indeed in every example in which {jei} is
>used in a full bridi.

I'll agree about 7.3 - we KNOW that the x2 of djuno is supposed to be a
fact that is known.  7.6 I am less sure of.  It seems that one can
be curious about an "object" as well as about a "realtionship".  i do not
know what you surmise the implicit abstraction to be as.

>Also, practically all of the not many times it has been used in actual
>texts has been like that.

We do have a problem with sumti raising.  It is consider a "bad thing" to
not mark it, but it still happens.  Probably the same will be tru of
unamrked irony.

>Maybe that's not by definition, but there are clearly two meanings:
>one in theory and a different one in practice.

I think that there is only one meaning, and we know this because the people
who make the error can recognize it is an error when it is pointed out.
John hasn't said this of course, and he may choose not to since he has a
certain necessary restraint needed as Author of Holy Writ. But especially
the djuno example is pretty obvious and wouldn't be an issue if it weren't
the less well understood jei that is at issue.

IN any event, even if you call this "contradiction" it is very clear how
the contradiction SHOULD be resolved.  And I suspect that if you had said
simply that 7.3 should have had tu'a (or fi) to be consistent with the
stated definition above, there would have been little or no debate.

>The nice thing about holy books is that they're so interpretable... :)

The nice thing about well writte holy books is that the interpretation is
so straightforward as this one %^)

lojbab
----
lojbab                                                lojbab@access.digex.net
Bob LeChevalier, President, The Logical Language Group, Inc.
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